Re: The problem of relativistic synchronisation

Am Freitag000030, 30.08.2024 um 18:31 schrieb Richard Hachel:
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Einstein says:
"We have not defined a common “time” for A and B, for the latter
  cannot be defined at all unless we establish _by definition_
  that the “time” required by light to travel from A to B equals
  the “time” it requires to travel from B to A."
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And:
  "In accordance with definition the two clocks synchronize if
      tB(e2) - tA(e1) = tA(e3) - tB(e2)"
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  tB(e2) - tA(e1) is the time the light uses to go from A to B
  tA(e3) - tB(e2) is the time the light uses to go from B to A
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Einstein _defines_ that the clocks simultaneously show
the same (are synchronous in the stationary system)
if the time the light uses to go from A to B equals
the time the light uses to go from B to A.

What had actually the reading of a clock to do with how fast light moves from A to B?
This would be a non sequitur, if time would not be what clocks say.
In fact light is here used to synchronize distant clocks.
But that does not say, that clocks would use light to measure time.
Usually clocks use other means than light, like pendulums or Quartz crystals.
To syncronize distant clocks, we would need to adjust them in a way, that they tick at the same rate and show the same time.
To measure this 'in synch' we would need to measure the delay and add this to the observed time from the remote system.
But this step cannot be found anywhere in Einstein's paper.
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TH
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