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Den 04.09.2024 02:32, skrev Richard Hachel:This is perfectly correct, and I am happy that we say the same thing, even if I give other values, because I speak in H (Hachel) synchronization and you in M (Einstein) synchronization.Le 03/09/2024 à 17:20, "Paul.B.Andersen" a écrit :Den 03.09.2024 12:03, skrev Richard Hachel:>>
We have:
>
tA(e1) = 0
tA'(e1)= 0
tA(e2) = 0.75 s
OK.And what's missing:>
tA'(e2) = 2.25
>
This is nonsense, and demonstrates that you
don't know what an event is.
e2 is the event that clock A and clock B' are adjacent
tA'(e2) is meaningless.It is obvious that tA'(e2) has a meaning for A'.e2 is short for "the event that clock A and clock B' are adjacent"
It is the time at which in his frame of reference (A'), the event E2 exists.
Paul, Paul, you can't say it's meaningless. A little more consideration for the other posters, and please a little more practical intelligence: there is indeed a moment, where, for A, the event e2 exists in his frame of reference, and if A' was synchronized at the start, there will be a time, and only one time of e2 that will be written on his watch.
We can easily, if we correctly master the notion of relativistic simultaneity and the notions of relative chronotropies,
reveal what this time written on the clock A' thus synchronized during e1 will be: tA'(e1)=0.
At this event, tA = (d/v)⋅√(1−v²/c²) = 0.75 s
and clock B will simultaneously in K show tB = 0.75 s
At this event, tB' = d/v = 1.25 s,
and clock A' will simultaneously in K' show tA' = 1.25 s
I beg you not to say that it is absurd or meaningless.At event e1 tA = 0, at event e2 tA = (d/v)⋅√(1−v²/c²) = 0.75 s
How to proceed?
We KNOW that the travel time of A in A'B'
so the travel time for A to go from e1 to e2 is = 0.75 s
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