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Den 04.02.2025 22:54, skrev rhertz:Poor idiot's mumble was not even consistent.The correct result, applying Taylor, isI have told you before, but you are incapable of learning.
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v/(c² – v²) ∂τ/∂t = 0
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This equation is QUITE DIFFERENT from the one published by Einstein:
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∂τ/∂x′ + v/(c² – v²) ∂τ/∂t = 0
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Now, considering that he started with Galilean transform x' = x-vt, the
final
result
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v/(c² – v²) ∂τ/∂t = 0
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is actually
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∂τ/∂t = 0
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This result proves fully the use of Galilean transforms:
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x' = x-vt
τ = t
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which he TRIED TO FORCEFULLY MODIFY to obtain Lorentz transforms.
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He shot on his foot with the scam of x' infinitesimally small being
equal to x'=0.
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But legion of relativists dismissed this FRAUD because, after all, the
Lorentz transforms were obtained by Lorentz and modified by Poincaré to
its current form.
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As this FAILURE invalidates only Point 3, the rest of the paper holds
still. However, what really is from Point 4 onwards is A BLATANT
PLAGIARISM of Lorentz and Poincaré (1904-1905).
But I will repeat in anyway:
You have not understood anything of Einstein's text,
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