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I made no attempts to 'understand' Einstein's text in a metaphysical way.He shot on his foot with the scam of x' infinitesimally small beingI have told you before, but you are incapable of learning.
equal to x'=0.
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But legion of relativists dismissed this FRAUD because, after all, the
Lorentz transforms were obtained by Lorentz and modified by Poincaré to
its current form.
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As this FAILURE invalidates only Point 3, the rest of the paper holds
still. However, what really is from Point 4 onwards is A BLATANT
PLAGIARISM of Lorentz and Poincaré (1904-1905).
But I will repeat in anyway:
You have not understood anything of Einstein's text, which is
very obvious from your ridiculous claim that §3 is a plagiarism
of Lorentz. You can't even have read §3 properly, you have only
scrutinised the text to find "x' = x − vt", and when you found
it, you got an orgasm, shouting:
"EINSTEIN USED GALILEAN TRANSFORM TO DERIVE LORENTZ WITHOUT ETHER!!"
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