Re: Incompleteness of Cantor's enumeration of the rational numbers (extra-ordinary)

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Sujet : Re: Incompleteness of Cantor's enumeration of the rational numbers (extra-ordinary)
De : richard (at) *nospam* damon-family.org (Richard Damon)
Groupes : sci.math
Date : 17. Dec 2024, 13:34:07
Autres entêtes
Organisation : i2pn2 (i2pn.org)
Message-ID : <0ea781d0d3fe1c2cb4e900898f655d12de85a403@i2pn2.org>
References : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
User-Agent : Mozilla Thunderbird
On 12/17/24 4:05 AM, WM wrote:
On 16.12.2024 18:25, joes wrote:
Am Mon, 16 Dec 2024 17:49:20 +0100 schrieb WM:
On 16.12.2024 16:40, joes wrote:
Am Mon, 16 Dec 2024 14:59:27 +0100 schrieb WM:
On 16.12.2024 12:55, joes wrote:
Am Mon, 16 Dec 2024 09:30:18 +0100 schrieb WM:
>
All intervals do it because there is no n outside of all intervals
[1, n]. My proof applies all intervals.
It does not. It applies to every single finite „interval”,
What element is not covered by all intervals that I use?
but not to the whole N.
You do not cover N, only finite parts.
What do I miss to cover?
Inf.many numbers for every n.
 But Cantor using every n does not miss to cover anything?
  > N is infinite.
 Every element is the last element of a FISON [1, n]. ℕ is the set of all FISONs. I use all FISONs. ∀n ∈ ℕ: f([1, n]) =< 1/10.
Ever heard of the effect of the universal quantifier?
 Regards, WM
 Regards, WM
 
But your logic can't deal with ALL Fisons.
Note, the mapping isn't in your [1, n] but in N.
Your logic that if it holds for all FISONs, it holds for N, is what shows that 0 == 1, so we see that logic is broken when it is applied to truely infinite things.

Date Sujet#  Auteur
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