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On 8/8/2024 5:56 PM, FromTheRafters wrote:Which is the case in respect to the usual < defined on ÌR.Chris M. Thomasson has brought this to us :On 8/8/2024 3:30 AM, FromTheRafters wrote:on 8/8/2024, WM supposed :Le 08/08/2024 à 00:17, Moebius a écrit :>>>Actually, his "thinking process" is simple:>
"Since there is a gap (space) between adjacent unit fractions and all unit fractions are in the interval (0, 1], there must be FINITELY MANY of them (i.e. a first/smallest one)."
No, that is nonsense. There are not finitely many unit fractions.
Then stop assuming that there is a first [...] element.
The first unit fraction is 1/1, there is no last one...
... or there is a last one but no first one.
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