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Le 03/08/2024 à 17:56, Richard Damon a écrit :Not with infinities.On 8/3/24 10:30 AM, WM wrote:If there are all, then there is half of all.But there is not even an eps that separates half of all unit fractions.>
Because such a question is meaningles, as there isn't a finite number that is half of the count of unit fractions.
Regards, WM
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